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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • and billing: Covers Official Coding Guidelines, OPPS reimbursement (APCs), and professional billing concepts including CPT E
  • M codes and Medicare Physician Fee Schedule documentation.
Topic 2
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 3
  • Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the Official Guidelines for
Topic 4
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 5
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.
Topic 6
  • Coding and Reporting, the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS), and provider coding

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q22-Q27):

NEW QUESTION # 22
A CDI specialist identifies an opportunity to clarify a patient's BMI. The CDI specialist leaves a query within the medical record for the ancillary support team to address during the patient's visit. Which of the following BEST describes this type of query?

Answer: D

Explanation:
This scenario describes a query placed before the patient is seen, with the intent that the issue be addressed during the upcoming visit. In outpatient CDI practice, that is the defining feature of a prospective query: it is initiated ahead of the encounter so the provider and/or clinic team can capture needed specificity in real time (here, clarifying BMI-related documentation to support an obesity diagnosis when clinically appropriate). By contrast, a concurrent query is typically issued while the encounter is actively occurring or immediately as documentation is being created and reviewed in near-real time. A retrospective query occurs after the visit is completed, usually during post-encounter review, when opportunities are identified after documentation is finalized. "Prebill" refers to a workflow timing concept tied to billing hold/review before claim submission, not the clinical timing of when the patient will be seen. Because the query is placed in advance specifically to be addressed during the scheduled visit, prospective is the best classification.


NEW QUESTION # 23
A prospective record review of a problem list states: "Upper respiratory infection (resolved), fractured right femoral head (resolved), metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology), hypertension, morbid obesity, and bipolar disorder." Which of the following query opportunities would provide the highest risk adjusted impact?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In ambulatory CDI risk adjustment, the largest RAF impact typically comes from ensuring accurate capture of high-weight, HCC-relevant chronic conditions-especially active malignancies with metastasis. "Metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology)" suggests an ongoing, clinically significant condition, but the wording could represent active metastatic disease, history of metastatic disease, remission, or no current evidence of disease. Because HCC models distinguish active metastatic cancer from history-only status, clarifying the current status (active/under treatment, recurrent, in remission, history) can materially change whether the condition qualifies for risk adjustment and how the patient's expected cost is benchmarked. By comparison, adding BMI (when morbid obesity is already documented) generally does not increase HCC capture, and fracture sequelae typically does not drive HCC risk scoring in the same way. Bipolar disorder may map to an HCC, but its relative impact is generally lower than metastatic cancer, making melanoma status the highest-value clarification.


NEW QUESTION # 24
What stage of pressure ulcer describes necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle?

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Stage 4 pressure ulcer (pressure injury) is characterized by full-thickness tissue loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures. The key phrase in the question-"necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle"-signals a depth of injury that extends beyond the subcutaneous tissue and involves muscle, which is consistent with Stage 4. By comparison, Stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis (no necrosis through deeper structures). Stage 3 involves full-thickness skin loss where adipose may be visible, but muscle, tendon, or bone are not exposed; undermining and tunneling may occur, yet the defining line is that it does not extend to muscle/bone involvement. "Stage 5" is not part of standard pressure ulcer staging used in coding and documentation. Outpatient CDI practice emphasizes documenting the exact stage, anatomic location, laterality when applicable, and whether the ulcer is healing or complicated (infection/osteomyelitis) because stage drives specificity, severity capture, and appropriate care planning documentation.


NEW QUESTION # 25
A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A high query rate with a strong physician response rate shows the CDI specialist is generating many queries and providers are opening/responding to them. However, a consistently low agree rate indicates providers frequently select "disagree," "clinically undetermined," or otherwise do not validate the query's suggested clarification. In outpatient CDI program management, that pattern most often reflects query quality problems-for example, queries that are not well-supported by encounter-specific clinical indicators, queries that are vague or overly speculative, or queries that do not align with outpatient reportability standards (e.g., prompting for diagnoses not clearly monitored/evaluated/assessed/treated). While leading queries are a compliance concern, the more direct operational inference from "high volume + answered + not agreed with" is that the queries are not clinically compelling or are poorly constructed, resulting in frequent provider non-concurrence. Case complexity alone would not reliably drive low agree rates if the queries were appropriately targeted and evidence-based. Therefore, the most likely interpretation is poor-quality queries requiring coaching on clinical support, clarity, and compliant construction.


NEW QUESTION # 26
What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

Answer: B

Explanation:
ICD-10-CM category N18 (Chronic kidney disease) is used to report CKD by stage, including stage-based descriptors and end stage renal disease (ESRD). Within N18, codes identify CKD stage 1 through stage 5, ESRD (stage 5D), and CKD unspecified. Outpatient CDI review focuses on ensuring providers document the stage (often supported by eGFR trends) because stage drives correct code selection and accurately reflects disease severity for risk, quality, and medical necessity. Options that include dialysis are not part of N18 itself; dialysis status and encounter codes are reported elsewhere (e.g., dialysis dependence/status codes), not as N18 category diagnoses. AKI (acute kidney injury) and ATN (acute tubular necrosis) are acute renal conditions and are coded outside N18. Likewise, polycystic kidney disease and "uremia" are separate diagnoses with their own code categories. Therefore, the set that correctly matches what N18 represents is CKD stage-based diagnoses such as CKD stage 3, more advanced/severe CKD stages, and ESRD.


NEW QUESTION # 27
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